CDIP Exam Info and Free Practice Test All-in-One Exam Guide Sep-2025
Pass AHIMA CDIP Actual Free Exam Q&As Updated Dump Sep 30, 2025
NEW QUESTION # 82
A clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program that is compliant with regulations from the facility's payors results in
- A. less risk from audits
- B. need for more CDI staff
- C. meeting external benchmarks
- D. higher overall program cost
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which entity has the following regulation?
A medical history and physical examination be completed and documented for each patient no more than 30 days before or 24 hours after admission or registration, but prior to surgery or a procedure requiring anesthesia services.
- A. Office of Inspector General
- B. Office for Civil Rights
- C. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
- D. Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The entity that has the following regulation is the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), which is the federal agency that oversees the Medicare and Medicaid programs and sets the Conditions of Participation (CoPs) and Conditions for Coverage (CfCs) for health care organizations that participate in these programs.
The regulation that requires a medical history and physical examination be completed and documented for each patient no more than 30 days before or 24 hours after admission or registration, but prior to surgery or a procedure requiring anesthesia services, is part of the CoPs for Hospitals, which are located in 42 CFR §
482.24. This regulation was revised in 2007 to align with the Joint Commission's standard and to provide more flexibility and consistency for hospitals and practitioners. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
42 CFR § 482.243
NEW QUESTION # 84
A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) identified the need to correct a resident physician's note in a patient health record that wrongly identified the organism causing the patient's pneumonia. What is best practice for fixing this mistake according to AHIMA?
- A. Amendments to record content must be co-signed by the attending physician
- B. Coders can rely on the laboratory results to confirm the patient's diagnosis
- C. Any physician caring for the patient can correct inaccurate record notes
- D. Errors are corrected by the clinician who authored the documentation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
According to AHIMA, best practice for fixing a mistake in a patient health record is that errors are corrected by the clinician who authored the documentation1. The clinician who made the error should identify and correct the inaccurate information, and document the date, time, and reason for the correction1. The correction should also be made in a way that preserves the original content and does not obscure or delete it1. The other options are not correct according to AHIMA. Any physician caring for the patient cannot correct inaccurate record notes, as this may compromise the accountability and integrity of the documentation2. Amendments to record content do not need to be co-signed by the attending physician, unless required by organizational policy or state law3. Coders cannot rely on the laboratory results to confirm the patient's diagnosis, as they should code based on the physician's documentation and not on test results alone. References:
Making Corrections in the Electronic Health Record - AHIMA
Auditing Copy and Paste - AHIMA
Amendments, Corrections, and Deletions in Transcribed Reports Toolkit - AHIMA
[Coding from Test Results | Journal Of AHIMA]
NEW QUESTION # 85
A hospital administrator has hired a clinical documentation integrity (CDI) firm to improve its revenue objectives. The physicians object to this action. How should the firm collaborate with physicians to overcome their objections?
- A. Hire a consultant to communicate the benefits to the physicians
- B. Create a vision statement that outlines the project objectives
- C. Identify an influential physician advisor/champion to promote support
- D. Communicate the benefits of the CDI firm about the project
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A physician advisor/champion is a physician leader who supports and advocates for the CDI program and its objectives. A physician advisor/champion can help overcome the objections of other physicians by providing education, feedback, guidance, and mentorship on documentation best practices and their impact on revenue, quality, and patient care. A physician advisor/champion can also act as a liaison between the CDI firm and the medical staff, resolve conflicts or discrepancies in documentation, and foster a culture of collaboration and improvement. Physicians are more likely to trust and engage with their peers who understand their clinical perspective and challenges, rather than an external CDI firm that may be perceived as intrusive or disruptive.
A:Create a vision statement that outlines the project objectives. This is not sufficient to collaborate with physicians and overcome their objections. A vision statement is a general statement that describes the desired outcome of the project, but it does not address the specific concerns or questions that physicians may have about the CDI firm's role, methods, or benefits.
B:Communicate the benefits of the CDI firm about the project. This is not enough to collaborate with physicians and overcome their objections. Communicating the benefits of the CDI firm may be informative, but it may not be persuasive or credible if it comes from the CDI firm itself, without any endorsement or support from a physician leader within the organization.
C: Hire a consultant to communicate the benefits to the physicians. This is not a good way to collaborate with physicians and overcome their objections. Hiring a consultant may add another layer of complexity and cost to the project, and it may not improve the trust or relationship between the CDI firm and the physicians. A consultant may also lack the clinical expertise or authority to influence the physicians' behavior or attitude.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Q&A: Defining roles for physician advisor/champion | ACDIS Q&A: The Role of the Physician Advisor in CDI | ACDIS The Role of a Physician Advisor - UASI Solutions PA/NP in Physician Champion / Advisor Role - ACDIS Forums
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following diagnosis is MOST likely to trigger a second level review?
- A. Heart failure
- B. Acute kidney injury
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Malnutrition
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Malnutrition is a diagnosis that is most likely to trigger a second level review because it affects the severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM) of the patient, as well as the reimbursement and quality measures of the hospital. Malnutrition also requires clinical validation and clear documentation of its etiology, type, degree, and duration2 References: 1:
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf 2:
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077
NEW QUESTION # 87
A clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) must determine the present on admission (POA) status of a stage IV sacral decubitus ulcer documented in the discharge summary. What is the first step that should be taken?
- A. Read the nursing admission notes
- B. Review the history and physical
- C. Query the attending provider
- D. Look for wound care documentation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The first step that a clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) should take to determine the present on admission (POA) status of a stage IV sacral decubitus ulcer documented in the discharge summary is to review the history and physical (H&P) because it is the initial source of information about the patient's condition at the time of admission. The H&P should include a comprehensive physical examination that covers all body systems, including the skin. If the H&P documents the presence of a stage IV sacral decubitus ulcer, then the POA status is "yes". If the H&P does not mention the ulcer, then the CDIP should look for other sources of documentation, such as wound care notes, nursing notes, or progress notes, to see if the ulcer was identified or treated during the hospital stay. If there is no clear evidence of when the ulcer developed, then the CDIP should query the attending provider to clarify the POA status. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
Present on Admission Reporting Guidelines3
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following clinical documentation integrity (CDI) dashboard metrics is frequently used to help evaluate the credibility of CDI practitioner queries and the success of the CDI program?
- A. Provider agreement rate
- B. CDI agreement rate
- C. CDI query rate
- D. Provider response rate
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The provider agreement rate is the percentage of queries that result in a change in the documentation or coding that is consistent with the query. It is a measure of the accuracy and appropriateness of the queries, as well as the provider's acceptance of the CDI program's recommendations. A high provider agreement rate indicates that the CDI practitioners are asking relevant and compliant queries that improve the quality and specificity of the documentation. The other options are not directly related to the credibility of the queries or the success of the CDI program. The CDI agreement rate is the percentage of queries that agree with the coder's final DRG assignment. The CDI query rate is the percentage of records that generate a query from the CDI practitioner.
The provider response rate is the percentage of queries that receive a response from the provider.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following falls under the False Claims Act?
- A. Missing modifiers
- B. Unbundling services
- C. Missing charges
- D. Missing diagnosis codes
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Unbundling services falls under the False Claims Act because it is a form of coding fraud that involves billing separately for components of a related group of procedures or tests that should be billed as a single code. For example, if a provider performs a comprehensive metabolic panel, which is a blood test that measures several components of the blood, such as glucose, electrolytes, and liver enzymes, and bills for each component individually instead of using the single code for the panel, that is unbundling. Unbundling services can result in overpayment by the government and can violate the False Claims Act, which prohibits submitting false or fraudulent claims for payment to the government, including the Medicare and Medicaid programs. Violators of the False Claims Act can face civil penalties of up to three times the amount of the false claim plus an additional $11,000 per claim 23.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 4 2: Coding Fraud | VSG 5 3: False Claims Act | OIG 2
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following demonstrates the relative severity and complexity of patient treated in the hospital, and is used to evaluate the financial impact of a hospital's clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program?
- A. Program for evaluating payment patterns electronic report
- B. Present on admission indicators
- C. Adjusted case mix index
- D. Hospital acquired conditions
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, the adjusted case mix index (CMI) is a measure that demonstrates the relative severity and complexity of patients treated in a hospital, and is used to evaluate the financial impact of a hospital's clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program1. The adjusted CMI is calculated by multiplying the unadjusted CMI by a factor that accounts for the percentage of Medicare patients in the hospital2. The higher the adjusted CMI, the higher the expected reimbursement per patient, and the more effective the CDI program is assumed to be3. The other options are not correct because they do not measure the severity and complexity of patients or the financial impact of CDI. Hospital acquired conditions (HACs) are conditions that are not present on admission and are considered preventable by CMS, and may result in reduced reimbursement or penalties4. The program for evaluating payment patterns electronic report (PEPPER) is a report that provides hospital-specific data on potential overpayments or underpayments for certain services or diagnoses, and helps identify areas of risk or opportunity for improvement. Present on admission (POA) indicators are codes that indicate whether a condition was present at the time of admission or acquired during the hospital stay, and affect the assignment of DRGs and HACs. References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide - AHIMA
Demystifying and communicating case-mix index - ACDIS
What is Case Mix Index? | The Importance of CMI
Hospital-Acquired Conditions (HACs) | CMS
[PEPPER Resources]
[Present on Admission Reporting Guidelines - CMS]
NEW QUESTION # 91
The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) performed a verbal query and then later neglected following up with the provider. How should the CDIP avoid a compliance risk for this follow up failure according to AHIMA's Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice?
- A. Complete the documentation at the end of the day when entering cases reviewed
- B. Complete the documentation immediately after the provider's response
- C. Complete the documentation at the time of discussion or immediately following
- D. Complete the documentation when there is a provider agreement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
According to AHIMA's Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice, the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) should complete the documentation at the time of discussion or immediately following to avoid a compliance risk for this follow up failure. This is because verbal queries are considered part of the health record and must be documented in a timely and accurate manner to reflect the provider's response and any changes in documentation or coding. Completing the documentation later or only when there is an agreement may result in errors, omissions, inconsistencies, or delays that may affect the quality and integrity of the health record and the query process. (AHIMA Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice1) References:
AHIMA Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice1
NEW QUESTION # 92
Identify the error in the following query:
This patient's echocardiogram showed an ejection fraction of 25%. The chest x-ray showed congestive heart failure (CHF). The patient was prescribed Lasix and an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI). Is this patient's CHF systolic?
- A. The query contains irrelevant information.
- B. The query is leading.
- C. The query is unclear.
- D. The query does not contain clinical indicators.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A leading query is one that suggests a specific diagnosis, condition, or treatment to the provider, or implies that a certain response is desired or expected. A leading query can compromise the integrity and accuracy of the documentation and the coded data, and may also raise compliance and ethical issues. A query should be non-leading, meaning that it presents the facts from the health record without bias or influence, and allows the provider to use their clinical judgment to determine the appropriate response.
The query in the question is leading because it implies that the patient's CHF is systolic by asking a yes/no question that only offers one option. A non-leading query would ask an open-ended question that offers multiple options, such as "What type of CHF does this patient have?" or "Please specify the type of CHF:
systolic, diastolic, or combined."
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice-2022 Update | ACDIS Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA The Provider Query Toolkit: A Guide to Compliant Practices
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following is the definition of an Excludes 2 note in ICD-10-CM?
- A. Neither of the codes can be assigned
- B. This is not a convention found in ICD-10-CM
- C. Two codes can be used together to completely describe the condition
- D. Only one code can be assigned to completely describe the condition
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An Excludes 2 note in ICD-10-CM indicates that the condition excluded is not part of the condition represented by the code, but a patient may have both conditions at the same time. When an Excludes 2 note appears under a code, it is acceptable to use both the code and the excluded code together to completely describe the condition. For example, under code R05 Cough, there is an Excludes 2 note for whooping cough (A37.-). This means that a patient can have both a cough and whooping cough at the same time, and both codes can be used together to capture the full clinical picture.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) ICD-10-CM Features | Diagnosis Coding: Using the ICD-10-CM1
NEW QUESTION # 94
A pressure ulcer stage III is documented in the progress note. The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) has queried the attending regarding the present on admission status of the pressure ulcer but has not received a response in an appropriate time frame. What should the CDIP do next?
- A. Escalate issue to hospital administration
- B. Query surgical consultant
- C. Query wound care nurse
- D. Escalate issue to medical staff leadership
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA-ACDIS Practice Brief, a query escalation policy should describe how to handle situations in which an answer is not received, an inappropriate answer or comment is provided, etc. The escalation policy should address when the issue is brought to the physician advisor, the department director, or administration with defined actions as to the responsibilities at each level. The policies should reflect a method of response that can realistically occur for the organization1. In this case, since the attending physician has not responded to the query in an appropriate time frame, the CDIP should escalate the issue to the medical staff leadership, such as the chief medical officer, the department chair, or the physician advisor, who can facilitate communication and education with the attending physician and ensure documentation integrity and compliance1.
References:
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA1
NEW QUESTION # 95
An 88-year-old male is admitted with a fever, cough, and leukocytosis. The physician documents admit for probable sepsis due to urinary tract infection (UTI). Antibiotics are started. Three days later, the blood and urine cultures are negative, the patient has been afebrile since admission, and the white blood count is returning to normal. What documentation clarification is needed to support accurate coding of the record?
- A. Send a clinical validation query for both the diagnoses of sepsis and UTI.
- B. Send a clinical validation query for only the diagnosis of UTI.
- C. Send a clinical validation query for only the diagnosis of sepsis.
- D. A clinical validation query is not required for either diagnosis.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA1, clinical validation is a process by which documentation is evaluated to ensure that the medical record demonstrates enough clinical support for all documented diagnoses as mandated by the False Claims Act. If there is a lack of clinical support for sepsis or UTI within the documentation, a clinical validation query should be sent.
Query choices should list sepsis or UTI as ruled out versus ruled in (because the physician is documenting sepsis or UTI), but the query choice should also ask the provider to provide additional clinical support within the medical record. Additional query choices that are supported by clinical indicators listed on the query should also be listed as appropriate1.
In this case, the patient was admitted with a fever, cough, and leukocytosis, which are signs and symptoms of sepsis or UTI. However, three days later, the blood and urine cultures are negative, the patient has been afebrile since admission, and the white blood count is returning to normal, which are indicators that sepsis or UTI may not be present or resolved. Therefore, there is a discrepancy between the documented diagnoses of sepsis and UTI and the clinical evidence in the record. A clinical validation query should be sent to clarify if sepsis and UTI are still valid diagnoses or if they have been ruled out after study. The query should also request additional documentation of any other clinical indicators that support the diagnosis of sepsis or UTI, such as vital signs, physical exam findings, inflammatory markers, imaging results, etc1.
References:
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA1
NEW QUESTION # 96
An organization dealing with staffing shortages has adopted a policy requiring clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) to stop reviewing any record after a major complication or co-morbidity is found. What is the unintended consequence of this?
- A. Reduced risk of clinical denials
- B. Increased number of records reviewed by each CDIP
- C. Decrease in severity of illness and risk of mortality
- D. Increase in case mix index
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM) are two metrics that measure the complexity and acuity of a patient's condition, based on the number, nature, and interaction of complications and comorbidities (CCs) and major CCs (MCCs). SOI reflects the extent of physiologic decompensation or organ system loss of function, while ROM reflects the likelihood of dying. Both SOI and ROM are divided into four levels: minor, moderate, major, or extreme. These metrics are used to adjust payment rates, quality indicators, and performance measures for hospitals and other healthcare providers.
If a CDIP stops reviewing any record after a major CC is found, they may miss other CCs or MCCs that could affect the patient's SOI and ROM levels. For example, a patient with pneumonia and sepsis would have a major CC (pneumonia) and an MCC (sepsis). If the CDIP stops reviewing the record after finding pneumonia, they would not capture sepsis, which would increase the patient's SOI and ROM levels from major to extreme.
This would result in underreporting the patient's true complexity and acuity, and potentially lead to lower reimbursement, lower quality scores, and higher denial risk.
Therefore, the unintended consequence of this policy is a decrease in SOI and ROM levels for patients who have more than one CC or MCC.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Q&A: Understanding SOI and ROM in the APR-DRG system
3M™ All Patient Refined Diagnosis Related Groups (APR DRGs)
Severity of illness | definition of severity of illness by Medical dictionary Using Severity Adjustment Classification for Hospital Internal and External Comparisons
NEW QUESTION # 97
A hospital clinical documentation integrity (CDI) director suspects physicians are over-using electronic copy and paste in patient records, a practice that increases the risk of fraudulent insurance billings. A documentation integrity project may be needed. What is the first step the CDI director should take?
- A. Alert senior leadership to the record documentation problem
- B. Recommend the physicians to be involved in the project
- C. Bring together a team of physicians and informatics specialists
- D. Gather data on the incidence of inaccurate record documentation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The first step the CDI director should take is to gather data on the incidence of inaccurate record documentation because it is important to establish the baseline and scope of the problem, as well as to identify the potential causes and consequences of over-using electronic copy and paste. Data collection can help to measure the frequency, severity, and impact of documentation errors, such as inconsistencies, redundancies, contradictions, or omissions. Data collection can also help to determine the best methods and tools for conducting the documentation integrity project, such as audits, surveys, interviews, or software applications. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide1) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline2
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide1
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following is an example of a hospital-acquired condition when not present on admission?
- A. Pressure ulcer stage II
- B. Pressure ulcer stage III
- C. Iatrogenic pneumothorax with venous catheterization
- D. Iatrogenic pneumothorax with lung biopsy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A hospital-acquired condition (HAC) is an undesirable situation or condition that affects a patient and that arose during a stay in a hospital or medical facility. CMS has identified 14 categories of HACs for which it will not pay the higher DRG rate if the condition was not present on admission (POA). One of these categories is stage III and IV pressure ulcers. A pressure ulcer is damage to the skin and underlying tissue caused by prolonged pressure on the skin. Stage III pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss with damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend down to, but not through, underlying fascia. The ulcer presents as a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissue.
A: Iatrogenic pneumothorax with lung biopsy is not a HAC, because it is not included in the CMS HAC list.
Iatrogenic pneumothorax is a HAC only when it occurs with venous catheterization.
B: Iatrogenic pneumothorax with venous catheterization is a HAC, but it may be present on admission if the venous catheterization was performed before the admission to the hospital.
C: Pressure ulcer stage II is not a HAC, because only stage III and IV pressure ulcers are included in the CMS HAC list. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis, dermis, or both. The ulcer is superficial and presents clinically as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Hospital Acquired Conditions | CMS ICD-10 HAC List | CMS Bedsores (pressure ulcers) - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic
NEW QUESTION # 99
The ultimate purpose of clinical documentation integrity (CDI) expansion and growth is to
- A. promote CDI functions so that physicians view the CDI staff as value-added service
- B. provide community education to healthcare consumers
- C. show a direct relationship between clinical documentation and quality patient care
- D. create synergy between clinical education and CDI principles
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The ultimate purpose of clinical documentation integrity (CDI) expansion and growth is to show a direct relationship between clinical documentation and quality patient care. According to the web search results, CDI programs aim to improve the quality and efficiency of clinical documentation by ensuring that it is accurate, complete, and consistent. This in turn leads to better health care data, which is vital for capturing the appropriate indicators used for health care facility and provider profiling, reimbursement, risk adjustment, and quality scores12. CDI programs also focus on patient safety, by identifying and resolving any documentation omissions, discrepancies, or adverse events that may affect the patient's outcome or care3. Therefore, CDI programs demonstrate how clinical documentation can impact the quality of patient care and the performance of health care organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following is considered a hospital-acquired condition if not present on admission?
- A. Blood incompatibility
- B. Diabetes with hypoglycemia
- C. Stage I and II pressure ulcers
- D. Air leak
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Blood incompatibility is considered a hospital-acquired condition if not present on admission, according to the CMS Hospital-Acquired Conditions (HAC) Reduction Program. This program reduces payments to hospitals that have high rates of certain conditions that are acquired during the hospital stay and could have been prevented by following evidence-based guidelines. Blood incompatibility is one of the 14 HAC categories that are included in the program, and it refers to a patient receiving a blood transfusion with incompatible blood type or Rh factor, which can cause serious adverse reactions such as hemolysis, anemia, renal failure, or death 23. Blood incompatibility is a preventable condition that can be avoided by proper blood typing and cross-matching before transfusion, and by following strict protocols and procedures for blood handling and administration 4.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 5 2: Hospital-Acquired Conditions | CMS 1 3: Hospital Acquired Conditions (HACs) - New York State Department of Health 3 4: Transfusion Reactions - Hematology and Oncology - Merck Manuals Professional Edition 6
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following committees should determine the chain of comnfand that will be used to manage physicians who are either unresponsive or uncooperative with the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) program?
- A. Compliance
- B. Communications
- C. Operations
- D. Oversight
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The oversight committee is responsible for establishing the policies, procedures, and guidelines for the CDI program, as well as monitoring its performance and outcomes. The oversight committee should include representatives from senior leadership, medical staff, coding, quality, compliance, and other relevant stakeholders. The oversight committee should determine the chain of command that will be used to manage physicians who are either unresponsive or uncooperative with the CDI program, as well as the consequences for non-compliance. The other committees are not directly involved in setting the chain of command or the disciplinary actions for the CDI program. The communications committee is responsible for facilitating the information flow and feedback among the CDI staff, providers, coders, and other departments. The operations committee is responsible for managing the day-to-day activities and functions of the CDI staff, such as staffing, training, productivity, and workflow. The compliance committee is responsible for ensuring that the CDI program adheres to the ethical and legal standards and regulations, such as query compliance, documentation integrity, and privacy and security.
NEW QUESTION # 102
......
Online Questions - Valid Practice CDIP Exam Dumps Test Questions: https://testking.practicedump.com/CDIP-exam-questions.html