2023 Latest NCLEX-RN Exam Dumps Recently Updated 865 Questions
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The National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX-RN) is an essential exam that aspiring nurses must pass to become licensed nurses in the United States. The NCLEX-RN is a standardized test that measures a candidate's knowledge and skills in the field of nursing. NCLEX-RN exam is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) and is recognized by all U.S. state and territorial nursing boards.
NEW QUESTION # 39
A 78-year-old female client has a total hip arthroplasty. Her nurse should know that which of the following is contraindicated?
- A. Check neurological and circulatory status of the affected leg hourly.
- B. Place a trochanter roll along the upper thigh of the affected leg.
- C. Encourage her to cross and uncross her legs.
- D. Encourage exercises in the unaffected extremities.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) Exercising the unaffected extremities will prevent contractures and emboli. (B) Crossing and uncrossing the affected leg after surgery can dislocate the joint. (C) Neurological and circulatory status of the affected leg has been compromised by surgery. Hourly checks are needed to monitor the status of the leg. (D) A trochanter roll will prevent the upper thigh from rolling outward, increasing the chances of dislocation.
NEW QUESTION # 40
A 22-year-old client is 16 weeks pregnant. She and her husband are expecting their first baby. The client tells the nurse that her last normal menstrual period was February 16, with 3 days of spotting on February
17, 18, and 19. The nurse calculates her expected date of delivery to be:
- A. November 23rd
- B. December 26th
- C. December 9th
- D. September 14th
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Naele's rule is as follows: add 7 days to the 1st day of the last menstrual period, subtract 3 months, and then add 1 year. (B) Naele's rule presumes that the woman has a 28-day menstrual cycle, with conception occurring on the 14th day of the cycle. Slight vaginal spotting may occur in early gestation for unknown reasons but is insignificant in the calculation of Naele's rule. (C) Naele's rule presumes that the woman has a 28-day menstrual cycle, with conception occurringon the 14th day of the cycle. Slight vaginal spotting may occur in early gestation for unknown reasons but is insignificant in the calculation of Naele's rule. (D) Naele's rule presumes that the woman has a 28-day menstrual cycle, with conception occurring on the 14thday of the cycle. Slight vaginal spotting may occur in early gestation for unknown reasons but is insignificant in the calculation of Naele's rule.
NEW QUESTION # 41
A female client at 36 weeks' gestation has been treated successfully for premature labor for 4 weeks. She has begun having uterine contractions today and has been admitted to the labor and delivery suite. Her amniocentesis results reveal a lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2 and positive phosphatidylglycerol (PG). These lab values indicate:
- A. Cord compression
- B. Fetal lung maturity
- C. Placental maturity
- D. Suspected chronic asphyxia
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Placental maturity is assessed by a biophysical profile. (B) L/S ratio and presence of phosphatidylglycerol are not used to determine fetal asphyxia. A biophysical profile score of6 may indicate this condition. (C) Cord compression is not reflected by the L/S ratio or presence of phosphatidylglycerol.
Variable decelerations observed through electronic fetal monitoring could reflect umbilical cord compression. (D) An L/S ratio>2 and the presence of phosphatidylglycerol in amniotic fluid indicate fetal lung maturity.
NEW QUESTION # 42
A 26-year-old female client presents at 10 weeks' gestation. She currently is a G3 1-0-1-1. Her mother and grandmother have heart disease. Her grandmother also has insulin-dependent diabetes. The client's previous delivery was a term female infant weighing 9 lb 13 oz. The client is 5 ft 6 inches tall and her current weight is 130 lb. Based on her history, she is at risk for developing diabetes in pregnancy. Which of the following factors places her at risk for gestational diabetes?
- A. Age>25 years
- B. Previous birth of an infant weighing>9 lb
- C. Family history of heart disease
- D. Maternal weight
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A)
Maternal age older than 30 years is an identified risk factor for diabetes. Age younger than 30 years is insignificant for diabetes unless there is a familial history of diabetes. (B) The client's weight is appropriate for her height. Obesity or pregnancy weight >20% of the ideal weight is a contributing factor to the development of gestational diabetes. (C) The birth of an infant weighing >9 lb (4000 g) is an identified risk factor for gestational diabetes.
(D)
A familial history of heart disease is insignificant in the development of diabetes. However, a familial history of type II diabetes mellitus is identified as a risk factor in the development of diabetes during pregnancy.
NEW QUESTION # 43
As a nurse in the emergency room, you receive an outside call from an elderly woman who states she has just been raped. She states, "I know I must come to the hospital, but what do I do next?" You advise her to call the police, then come to the hospital emergency room. What action by the nurse would indicate an understanding of the examination process once the victim enters the emergency room?
- A. Phone a rape counselor to begin working with the victim as soon as she enters the hospital.
- B. Do not leave the victim alone to collect her thoughts.
- C. Inform the victim to bring insurance information with her to the hospital so she can be properly cared for.
- D. Inform the victim not to wash, change clothes, douche, brush teeth, or eat or drink anything.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Providing the victim with these instructions will aid in the determination of physical evidence of rape.
Victims frequently feel "dirty" after rape, and their first instinct is to take care of personal hygiene before facing anyone. (B) This action is of lesser importance at this time. (C) Although this is a nursing measure appropriate in this situation, contacting a counselor can be done once the victim enters the hospital. Frequently victims call but do not follow up with the visit. (D) Once the victim enters the emergency room, it is important not to leave her alone.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following findings would necessitate discontinuing an IV potassium infusion in an adult with ketoacidosis?
- A. Small T wave of ECG
- B. Serum glucose level of 180
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.7
- D. Urine output 22 mL/hr for 2 hours
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Adequate renal flow of 30 mL/hr is a necessity with potassium infusions because potassium is excreted renally. (B) Because potassium level will decrease during correction of diabetic ketoacidosis, potassium will be infused even if plasma levels of potassium are normal. (C) A small T wave is normal and desired on the electrocardiogram. A tall, peaked T-wave could indicate overinfusion of potassium and hyperkalemia.
(D) Glucose levels of <200 are desirable.
NEW QUESTION # 45
When providing dietary teaching to an individual who has diabetes mellitus, type II, the nurse discusses the importance of consuming the recommended daily allowance of which of the following electrolytes?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Magnesium
- D. HCO3
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Potassium intake that meets the recommended daily allowance is important, especially in clients who have a history of cardiac disease. (B) Low levels of magnesium can cause an increase in resistance to insulin and can lead to carbohydrate intolerance. (C) Sodium is an important electrolyte for all clients but has no direct effect on diabetes mellitus. (D) Bicarbonate plays an important role in acid-base balance. It is equally necessary for maintenance of all body functions.
NEW QUESTION # 46
A client is medically cleared for ECT and is tentatively scheduled for six treatments over a 2-week period. Her husband asks, "Isn't that a lot?" The nurse's best response is:
- A. "Yes, that does seem like a lot."
- B. "Don't worry. Some clients have lots more than that."
- C. "You'll have to talk to the doctor about that. The physician knows what's best for the client."
- D. "Six to 10 treatments are common. Are you concerned about permanent effects?"
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) This response indicates that the nurse is unsure of herself and not knowledgeable about ECT. It also reinforces the husband's fears. (B) This response is "passing the buck" unnecessarily. The information needed to appropriately answer the husband's question is well within the nurse's knowledge base. (C) The most common range for affective disorders is 6-10 treatments. This response confirms and reinforces the physician's plan for treatment. It also opens communicationwith the husband to identify underlying fears and knowledge deficits. (D) This response offers false reassurance and dismisses the husband's underlying concerns about his wife.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A 24-year-old client presents to the emergency department protesting "I am God." The nurse identifies this as a:
- A. Delusion
- B. Conversion
- C. Illusion
- D. Hallucination
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Delusion is a false belief. (B) Illusion is the misrepresentation of a real, external sensory experience. (C) Hallucination is a false sensory perception involving any of the senses. (D) Conversion is the expression of intrapsychic conflict through sensory or motor manifestations.
NEW QUESTION # 48
A client presents to the emergency room with cyanosis, coughing, tachypnea, and tachycardia. She has a history of asthma. Arterial blood gas values are pH 7.28, PaO2 54, PaCO2 60, and HCO3 24. The nursing assessment of arterial blood gases indicate the presence of:
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Respiratory acidosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Respiratory alkalosis is determined by elevated pH and low PaCO2. (B) Respiratory acidosis is determined by low pH and elevated PaCO2. (C) Metabolic alkalosis is determined by elevated pH and HCO3.
(D) Metabolic acidosis is determined by low pH and HCO3.
NEW QUESTION # 49
The nurse enters the playroom and finds an 8-year-old child having a grand mal seizure. Which one of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Go to the nurses station and call the physician.
- B. Restrain the child so he will not injure himself.
- C. Move furniture out of the way and place a blanket under his head.
- D. Place a tongue blade in the child's mouth.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The nurse should not put anything in the child's mouth during a seizure; this action could obstruct the airway. (B) Restraining the child's movements could cause constrictive injury. (C) Staying with the child during a seizure provides protection and allows the nurse to observe the seizure activity. (D) The nurse should provide safety for the child by moving objects and protecting the head.
NEW QUESTION # 50
A client is 2 hours post ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. How should the nurse position the client?
- A. Bed flat on operative side
- B. Head of bed elevated 30 degrees on operative side
- C. Bed flat on nonoperative side
- D. Head of bed elevated 30 degrees on nonoperative side
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) Elevation of head on nonoperative side would be the position for the late postoperative period. (B) Positioning on operative side puts pressure on the suture lines and on the shunt valve. Elevation of head in immediate postoperative period may cause rapid reduction of cerebrospinal fluid. (C) Placement on operative side puts pressure on the suture lines and shunt valve. (D) Flat position on nonoperative side in the immediate postoperative period prevents pressure on shunt valve and rapid reduction in cerebrospinal fluid.
NEW QUESTION # 51
The nurse explains perineal hygiene self-care postpartum to the client. She should be instructed to:
- A. Protect the outer surface of the pad from contamination
- B. Place and adjust the pad from back to front
- C. Cleanse and wipe the perineum from front to back
- D. Wear gloves for the procedure
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Perineal hygiene is a clean procedure and does not require the client to wear gloves. A care provider should wear gloves to adhere to universal precautions. (B) The pad should be applied from front to back to prevent contamination of the birth canal or urinary tract from rectal bacteria. (C) Wiping from front to back and discarding the wipe prevents contamination of the urinary tract and birth canal from rectal bacteria. (D) The inner surface of the pad should not be touched to maintain asepsis.
NEW QUESTION # 52
A 47-year-old client comes to the emergency department complaining of moderate flank, abdominal, and testicular pain with nausea of 4 hours' duration. After physical examination and obtaining the client's history, the physician suspects urethral obstruction by calculi. The nurse realizes that the physician will order which one of the following diagnostic studies to best confirm the diagnosis?
- A. Intravenous pyelogram with excretory urogram
- B. Kidneys, ureter, bladder, x-ray of abdomen
- C. Ureterolithotomy
- D. Cystoscopy
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Cystoscopy is an endoscopic procedure that uses an instrument (a cystoscope) to visualize the internal bladder and ureter structures and to capture and remove an obstructing stone. (B) Kidney, ureter, bladder x-ray is used to outline gross structural changes in the kidneys, ureter, and bladder and will determine the general location of a stone. (C) An intravenous pyelogram with excretory urogram is used to visualize the kidneys, kidney pelvis, ureters, and bladder. This procedure is used specifically to determine whether urethral obstruction is partial or complete; it shows the exact location of the stone and dilation of the ureter above the stone. (D) Ureterolithotomy is a surgical procedure in which the ureter is incised and the stone is manually removed because the stone is unable to pass through the ureter independently.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Parents should be taught not to prop the bottle when feeding their infants. In addition to the risk of choking, it puts the infant at risk for:
- A. Tonsillitis
- B. Otitis media
- C. Asthma
- D. Conjunctivitis
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A)
Because the eustachian tube is short and straight in the infant, formula that pools in the back of the throat attacks bacteria which can enter the middle ear and cause an infection.
(B)
Asthma is not associated with propping the bottle. (C) Conjunctivitis is an eye infection and not associated with propping the bottle. (D) Tonsillitis is usually a result of pharyngitis and not propping the bottle.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A 49-year-old obese woman has been admitted to the general surgery unit with choledocholithiasis. As the nurse is admitting her to the unit, she states, "The doctor said I have stones that need to be removed; where are they?" The nurse knows that the best explanation for this is to tell her that:
- A. There are stones present in her gallbladder
- B. There are stones present in her common bile duct
- C. There are stones present in her kidneys
- D. There are no stones, but her gallbladder is irritated and caused her nausea, vomiting, and pain
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Cholelithiasisis the correct term used to describe the presence of stones in the gallbladder. (B) Nephrolithiasis,orrenal calculi,is the correct term used to describe the presence of stones in the kidney. (C) Choledocholithiasisis the correct term used to describe the presence of stones in the common bile duct. (D) Cholecystitisis the correct term used to describe inflammation of the gallbladder and can be associated with cystic duct obstructions from impacted stones.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A 3-year-old female client is brought into the pediatric clinic because she limps. She has not been to the clinic since she was 9 months old. The nurse practitioner describes the limp as a "Trendelenburg gait." This gait is characteristic of:
- A. Fractured femur
- B. Scoliosis
- C. Dislocated hip
- D. Fractured pelvis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A, C, D) A Trendelenburg gait is not characteristic of any of these disorders. (B) The downward slant of one hip is a positive sign of dislocation in the weight-bearing hip. If one hip is dislocated, the child walks with a characteristic limp known as the Trendelenburg gait.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A 22-year-old single woman was admitted to the psychiatric hospital by her mother, who reported bizarre behavior. Except for going to work, she spends all her time in her room and expresses concern over neighbors spying on her. She has fears of the telephone being "bugged." Her diagnosis is schizophrenia.
One nurse per shift is assigned to work with the client. The primary reason for this plan would be to:
- A. Enable her to develop trust
- B. Involve her in groups for social interaction
- C. Protect her from suicide
- D. Supervise her medication regimen
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Suicide is a greater risk in depression than in schizophrenia. (B) The client is suspicious and needs help to develop trust, which is basic to her improvement. (C) Although she will be taking medication, drug therapy would not necessitate consistency in the nurses assigned. (D) A suspicious client should have limited exposure to groups, because group participation increases discomfort.
NEW QUESTION # 57
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NCLEX-RN is a licensing examination for registered nurses in the United States and Canada. It is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) and is designed to ensure that nurses have the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective care to patients. NCLEX-RN exam is computer-adaptive, meaning that the difficulty of the questions adapts to the test-taker's level of knowledge. The NCLEX-RN is a comprehensive exam, covering a range of nursing topics such as pharmacology, health promotion, and patient care. Passing the NCLEX-RN is a requirement to obtain a nursing license and practice as a registered nurse in the United States and Canada.
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